Every time I see an ancient text translated, it always sounds like it was spoken by a classy Englishman from the 1800s. Is there a reason it’s translated that way instead of modern English?
Every time I see an ancient text translated, it always sounds like it was spoken by a classy Englishman from the 1800s. Is there a reason it’s translated that way instead of modern English?
My grandmother took me to her birthplace in Denmark and kept saying she couldn’t speak Danish with the locals, despite having spoken Danish with her family in America semi-regularly. I never thought it was because her vocabulary and accent was stuck in 1940s and she didn’t feel confident speaking that way.
Her problem was probably that nobody understands Danish.
Ha, great skit. Last I visited was for a wedding between a Swede and a Dane, they both claimed the other spoke like they had mashed potatoes in their mouth.